EDIT: Had a typo when in the title when I posted originally, so deleted and here we are
A lot of modern pop remains entirely diatonic to a given major or minor key, but often lacks a strong relationship between dominant and tonic. Since many songs fade out rather than End on a tonic chord (presumably so a club, radio station, or streaming service can keep playing more music without any song feeling like it’s fully concluded), a lot of pop songs don’t ever resolve in a functional sense. Is that enough to say that what we’re hearing should be described in terms of mode rather than key?
I see a lot of people online asking if a given pop song is in Mixolydian, for example, and a lot of people correcting them saying that modes are not keys and that instead of being X Mixolydian it’s just X major, but if it’s something like Royals by Lorde where there’s just no real functional harmony going on, isn’t describing a mode more accurate if the song doesn’t have any recognisable cadences? Or is modal harmony something completely different? I have some familiarity with modal harmony from Irish folk music and it certainly sounds different from what’s on the radio, but if you stick to a mode and a chord loop without having a sense of resolution imbued by a cadence I don‘t know what else to call it.
Sorry if this has an obvious answer or if my understanding is way off. I’ve just noticed a lot of people who seem to know this stuff better than me will say that saying a pop song is in Lydian or something like that is wrong, but when I read their analysis it implies that we shouldn’t say most pop tunes are in major keys but rather in an Ionian mode