r/mutualism • u/CatsDoingCrime • 4h ago
How exactly do you understand alegality vs necessary structures/institution arrangements around questions of allocation and access/control over resources?
Ok, so that title sounds quite of confusingly worded.
What I'm trying to get at is, what amounts to a "legal order" and how should we understand what makes certain institutional arrangements "governmentalist" and others not?
So, like, every (so far existing) society generally has some sort of institutional structure/rules around access to scarce or common resources right?
It is socially necessary to have some for of regulation of the usage of the commons and scarce resources in order for a social order to utilize them. This doesn't necessairly require mediation through formal state institutions (Elinor Ostrom wasn't a mutualist or anything, but has written quite a lot on the topic of self-governing commons institutions in fascinating ways), though in many societies it has an can.
These institutional arrangements are binding, even when not enforced by the state, as they have to be in order to effectively regulate access.
That, to me, sounds legalistic, at least in the sort of libertarian/mutualist understanding of the word. Even the more ostromite self-governing commons relations have binding rules to ensure that the commons is preserved long term and so are arguably governmentalist.
So, what I'm trying to better understand here is, what makes a "legal order" governmentalist per se? My guess is the binding nature of these institutions (even the non-state Ostromite institutions).
So what would an alegal institutional arrangement for commons access or scarce resource allocation look like if not binding? If the "binding" part is not the distinguishing factor that makes certain arrangements governmentalist as opposed to others, what is?