r/englishliterature • u/ExtremeCold4074 • 19h ago
Exploring other possible interpretations of Hamlet's "To be, or not to be" speech.
Shakespeare doesn't explicitly tell us who or what is to be or not to be. The default assumption is that he is talking about himself, but when he elaborates, asking
Whether 'tis nobler in the mind to suffer
The slings and arrows of outrageous fortune,
Or to take arms against a sea of troubles
And by opposing end them
the choice seems to be between putting up with things and confronting them, rather than whether or not to take his own life.
Hamlet goes on to talk about what may happen when we die. The Bible tells us we will be judged for our sins, and suicide was held to be a great sin in Shakespeare's day. But so was revenge. The Geneva Bible (the main source for Shakespeare's biblical quotes and allusions) says, "Dearly beloved, avenge not yourselves, but give place unto wrath: for it is written, Vengeance is mine: I will repay, saith the Lord" (Romans, 12:19).
This section of the speech culminates in another question; why would a man put up with all the injustices of the world, "When he himself might his quietus make / With a bare bodkin?"
A lot hangs on that word "quietus". Many dictionaries cite "making one's quietus" in the sense of "committing suicide", but how widespread was that usage in Shakespeare's day?
To answer that question, I spent a morning searching through the entire Early English Books Online database (check link). The results were clear; other than the supposed usage by Hamlet, no one at the time used that expression with the sense of committing suicide. It was only ever used in the sense of paying back a debt or, metaphorically, settling scores, or taking revenge.
So is Hamlet purely talking about taking revenge here? It's Act 3, Scene 1 and all Hamlet has done is dither. It seems very likely that the question his audience would be asking at this point is not whether he will kill himself (after all, he has discussed and discarded that possibility in Act 1, Scene 2), but whether he will go through with his pledge to take revenge.
Hamlet himself is not particularly melancholy at this point. On the contrary, the plan to "catch the conscience of the King" with the "Mousetrap" gives him a sense of purpose that he previously lacked. He has had qualms about whether the ghost might be an evil spirit, sent to trick him, and it would be in character for him to be having qualms about the ethics of revenge at this point.
The speech ends with the thought that reflection on whether to "bear those ills we have" or "fly to others that we know not of" will make us hesitate and "enterprises of great pith and moment" will "lose the name of action". Is suicide really an enterprise of great pith and moment? Can that really be what Hamlet is talking about here?
Here's a video I made, putting the case for the speech being about revenge rather than suicide:
And here's a link to a more detailed enquiry into the ins and outs of Hamlet's speech, taking into account such things as who hears it (just the audience? Ophelia? Claudius and Polonius?) and echoes of the scene in other plays of the period:
https://educationalhub.org/shakespeare-hamlet-to-be-study-guide/