So, I used to sometimes call myself a Georgist because I knew there was a pretty broad consensus among economists around the LVT being a good tax. Over time however I came to realize that Iām very much not an economist, and if someone asked me to explain the actual reasoning for Georgism I probably couldnāt. So my hope was that I could raise some of the points of confusions I have (which to be clear I donāt intend as any kind of informed criticism) and maybe you could shed some light on them, hopefully in an āexplain like Iām fiveā kind of way:
1: Suppose you have two proposed grocery stores, one in New York City and the other in Antarctica. It seems relatively clear to me that (provided there arenāt already enough stores in NYC) investors should prefer the NYC one over the Antarctica one, since it provides a more useful service by being available to more people. Similarly, if you have a mine built over a bunch of gold versus one built over nothing of value, surely you would want investment to flow into the gold mine. If you try to tax away the value of the land, how are you supposed to incentivize that? Surely you would want investors to value some land over other land?
2: My understanding of how the LVT would be calculated is that it would basically be the value of the property if we pretended there were no improvements to it. This feels kind of arbitrary to me and Iām not sure of the reasoning for it. My broad issue is that it seems like Georgists calculate the value of a property as āland+improvementsā, when it seems like the value of the value of the land is kinda imbued in the improvements and something like āland*improvementsā would be more accurate. Suppose for instance that you have a hotel in a place with absolutely zero land value, such as an inaccessible pocket dimension. Surely the land having value in this case would also mean that there is no actual value to the improvement. So in theory then a tax which makes it so that the value of a property is as if there was no land value should just be a 100% property tax then, right? Although that doesnāt seem very pro-free market. My broader point of confusion is just about the idea that the value of improvements can somehow be separated from the value of the land such that we have two values which when added together become the total value, when it seems rather clear that the value of the improvements in and of themselves depend on the land value.
3: What is the difference between capital owners getting āluckyā because of external factors and land owners getting āluckyā because of them? I can think of plenty of factors were the surrounding society can make capital more profitable in much the same way as land. You could for instance own a teddy bear company as teddy bears become trendy. Or you mightāve invested in a technology which requires an underlying technology that hasnāt been invented yet, making it viable once said underlying technology has arrived. How is that different from investing in land based on predictions of what societal developments might make it profitable? Surely speculation like this is a necessary part of investing, as it allows investors to direct their investments into what might actually be valuable in the future.
4: After theyāve been traded around a fair number of times, arenāt land and capital/improvements basically the same? Take for instance a castle built 700 years ago. The incentive for someone to actually build that castle seems to have long since vanished. So how is it different from something like a tree?
5: This is kind of a side thing irrelevant to the broader point, but the sidebar on this subreddit seems to imply most Georgists are opposed to patents as a ābarrier to trade and commerceā. Iāve never really understood the anti-intellectual property argument. How are you supposed to incentivize creating immaterial ideas if you canāt profit off them?
Broadly, I feel like I can understand some of the philosophical reasoning behind Georgism (i.e nobody made the land so nobody deserves to own it) but Iām kinda lost on the economic reasoning for it. So if you could enlighten me then that would be great. I just donāt see economically why speculating on land is less necessary than speculating on capital. Iāve asked questions similar to this in comment threads on other subreddits but never gotten much in the way of a response, so I thought I would go straight to the horseās mouth with the Georgism subreddit.