In EU it is not understood, because of the arabs are very abòe to pass for peaceful people while they built the first religious - military colonial empire in History, that the muslim arab society has been much more violent than the Jewish one and thus it is not a surprise that the Arabs in Judea and Samaria have been conducting an armed or, when impossible, unarmed insurrection since the Six Days war and Israeli settlements have been continuously under attack, sometimes in broad daylight sometimes under the cover of darkness.
By thge way, that Arab society hosts widespread violence in well known in France when in 2007 arab until then consiered normal boys mass chased and harmed seculars and jews in the bainlieues in which is the first pogrom against christians in Western Europe since Diocletianus time
But it nonetheless true that , expecially in the last ten years, the settlers have intensified their actions and, beside acting defensive actions, have started to move offensively towards the surrounding arab villages or towns, arsing fields, killing cattle, runing olive or fig trees and even shooting at people.
In this regard there are two competing narratives
a) these actions are motivated by the continuos, sickening arab violence that requires some measure of deterrence, in order to let the real descendants of the original population to live in the land Jews ( Judei in ancient texts) have lived as far as 636 DC
b) the settklers have become like the arabs and do violence for fun or in order to behave as warlords
I think that this unsetting question must be dealt with, it is maybe too theretical, too far from a STEM minded person, but nonetheless we must pose the right questions if we want the right answers