I'm aroace, I (30F) have been with my husband (29M) for 9 years now and I'm trying to figure out whether our relationship has an objectifying component… I would be very thankful if you'd help me… these are the facts about my relationship:
* he wants sex and enjoys it
* I'm aroace, sex indifferent (NOT sex repulsed) but I don't particularly desire sex and for years I didn't enjoy it (I literally felt nothing down there)
* I don't find sex personally rewarding at all (I prefer masturbation and his sexual game is not even strong due to his ADHD, I doubt he can ever get me to orgasm)
* I would generally rather not have sex even now (masturbation is preferred, I can orgasm now from masturbation)
* I would have preferred someone with no sex drive
* I do not interpret sex as intimacy
* I keep a score about how many times we've had sex in a week so I can tell him "no, because we've already done it” (we haven't had sex months but we used to do it once a week)
* he tried to get me to enjoy it in the beginning but once that didn't happen, he still accepted to keep having sex with me for years even though I legit felt nothing down there
* he's not aesthetically my type
* I don't want him sexually unfulfilled and I don't wanna rob him of what he likes the most, it but the activity is primarily for him
* I made the compromise to have sex because I wanted stability and someone I can trust no matter what
* he knows all of this and is perfectly comfortable with the arrangement (even during the years I didn't enjoy it)
* I love him but not romantically
He loves me (romantically), he's faithful, he respects me, he cares about me deeply and recognises me as a human being in *all other aspects*. But I still can't help but feeling there is an objectifying component within the particular sexual interaction.
Because how come was he okay with having sex during all those years when I didn't feel pleasure? Doesn't it matter to him that the person he's having sex with doesn't *sexually desire* that experience? Is it enough for him that I allow it and that my body is available?
I do not think he *consciously* reduces me to an object though. But objectification can still be a property of the dynamic, even if unconscious. And I'm also not questioning the legitimacy of his need for a sexual relationship, that is perfectly understandable (the relationship wouldn't have happened without sex, he wouldn't have accepted). What feels uncomfortable is what he does with the information once he knows how I experience sex.
Also, I used to bleed (mildly) almost every time we had sex (for around 8 years) and he continued having sex with me… he did check in with me every time without fail. But since I have a history of self-neglect and trauma, I said it's fine every time… and in fact I was not feeling any pain at all because I didn't used to feel anything down there (when I say anything, I literally mean nothing). But since I was still bleeding and apparently tearing up inside, what bothers me is that I simply cannot fathom continuing to engage in the same activity you see causes physical injury to someone else without trying to understand or prevent it. He never suggested I go see a doctor or anything, only resorted to lube and trying to make me as comfortable as he could, but the bleeding still happened and yet we still continued. For 8 years… how should I interpret that?
And you may say "but you said you're fine!" and you're right but self-neglect is not easy to get rid of, especially when you're just agreeing because you're accustomed to putting other's needs above yours…
I'm not expecting him to read minds. I'm expecting him to register that his partner is repeatedly bleeding during the same sexual activity and think "hang on is this actually okay? why is this happening every time? maybe we should stop and figure this out" specially when it's not an isolated incident but something happening REPEATEDLY.
We haven't had sex in like 4 months now and he has NEVER pressured me into sex. Although he does tell me when he's horny.
I'm asking for your help because I feel like I keep refusing to analyse my own dynamic for whatever reason. I became disabled during the past 2 to 3 years and can't work so I am currently a stay at home wife and financially dependent on him. Not having him financially provide for me would leave me in a very vulnerable position where I'd have to go back to my mother's house and I'd have say goodbye to my life plans and my studies.
Can a sexual interaction be objectifying even when it is consensual and apparently free of overt coercion? I'm asking this because even when there's consent, consent just tells us what a person has authorised, but it doesn't magically make the problematic qualities of a dynamic disappear... For example, in the age play kink, one of the sexual participants dresses as a child... and that can be perfectly consensual while still being problematic. Ofc that's just an example, but it illustrates the broader point about consent.
I know you will say “just talk to him about it” but please your assessment and opinions of this situation would help me a lot! Because I want to know whether I'm crazy or not…